Hi Richard,
Very good questions!
And welcome back Rev Eric! Great to see you posting again.
Just want to offer more supporting evidence for what Rev Eric already said:
Three days and three nights is not necessarily a literal three days and three nights as we think of it today, nor is it necessarily three 24 hour periods. Biblically speaking, three days and three nights don't have to mean three full days and three full nights. “Three days and three nights” may simply mean three days in popular speech for the time and culture.
For example, the same Greek expression is found in 1 Samuel 30:12 in the Greek translation of the Old Testament (the Septuagint) as in Matthew 12:40. The following verse, 1 Samuel 30:13 refers to the three-day and three-night period mentioned in verse 12 as “three days ago” or, as the Septuagint Old Testament literally states, “the third day today” (also see Stephen Ray link below). This is a specific case where the same time period is described both as "three days and three nights" and as "the third day today. "
1Sa 30:11 And they found an Egyptian in the field, and brought him to David: and they gave him bread to eat, and water to drink,
1Sa 30:12 As also a piece of a cake of figs, and two bunches of raisins. And when he had eaten them, his spirit returned, and he was refreshed: for he had not eaten bread, nor drunk water, three days and three nights.
1Sa 30:13 And David said to him: To whom dost thou belong; or whence dost thou come? and whither art thou going? He said: I am a young man of Egypt, the servant of an Amalecite: and my master left me, because I began to be sick three days ago.
Also compare the verses of Esther 4:16 and Esther 5:1.
In addition, elsewhere in his Gospel, Matthew repeatedly alludes to the day of the Resurrection as the "third day" or "after three days" (Mt 16:21, Mt 17:23, Mt 20:19, Mt 26:61, Mt 27:40, Mt 27:63-64). The ancient Jews counted part of a day as a full day in such terminology. Matthew seems to be using the terms "three days and three nights" intechangeably with "the third day." For the ancient Jews, the third day from Friday is Sunday.
Here are what some of the Church Fathers say:
St. Augustine., De Cons., Ev., iii, 24: Some, not knowing the Scripture manner of speaking, would interpret as one night those three hours of darkness when the sun was darkened from the sixth to the ninth hour; and as a day in like manner these other three hours in which it was again restored to the world, from the ninth hour till sunset. Then follows the night preceding the sabbath, which if we reckon with its own day we shall have thus two days and two nights. Then after the sabbath follows the night of the sabbath prime, that is of the dawning of the Lord's day on which the Lord arose. Thus we shall only get two nights and two days, with this one night to be added if we might understand the whole of it, and it could not be shewn that that dawn was indeed the latter part of the night. So that not even by taking in those six hours, three of darkness, and three of restored light, can we establish the computation of three days and three nights. It remains therefore that we find the explanation in that usual manner of Scripture of putting a part for the whole.
St. Augustine., De Trin., iv. 6: For that the three days were not three full and entire days, Scripture witnesses; the first day is reckoned because the latter end of it comes in; and the third day is likewise reckoned, because the first part of it is included; while the day between, that is the second day, appears in all its twenty-four hours, twelve of the night and twelve of the day. For the succeeding night up to the dawn when the Lord's resurrection was made known, belongs to the third day. For as the first days of creation were, because of man's coming fall, computed from morning to night; so these days are because of man's restoration computed from night to morning.
St. Jerome: Not that He remained three whole days and three nights in hell, but that this be understood to imply a part of the preparation day, and of the Lord's day, and the whole sabbath day.
St John Chrysostom.: He said not openly that He should rise again, because they would have derided him, but hints it distantly that even they might believe that He foreknew it. He said not in the earth, but in the heart of the earth, therein declaring His tomb, and that none might suspect that there was only the semblance of death. Therefore also He spake of three days, that it should be believed that He was dead. But the sign itself proves the truth of it; for Jonas was in the whale's belly not in figure but in deed; and surely the sign did not happen in very deed, if the thing signified happened only in figure. Wherefore it is manifest that they are children of the Devil who follow Marcion asserting that the passion of Christ was only a phantasy. And that He should suffer for them also, though they would not profit by it, is shewn by that which He speaks, that to this generation should be given the sign of Jonas the Prophet.
Here is another Catholic perspective from apologist Stephen Ray:
Explanation by Stephen RayThere are many non-traditional theories which put Good Friday either at Wednesday or Thursday and the Resurrection either on Saturday evening or Sunday morning, depending on what the author wants to "prove." These are relatively recent theories in Christianity, however.
Protestant scholars agree that "three days and three nights" means "on the third day." For example, John Wesley's commentary on Mt 12:40 states:
Three days and three nights - It was customary with the eastern nations to reckon any part of a natural day of twenty-four hours, for the whole day. Accordingly they used to say a thing was done after three or seven days, if it was done on the third or seventh day, from that which was last mentioned. Instances of this may be seen, 1Ki 20:29; and in many other places. And as the Hebrews had no word to express a natural day, they used night and day, or day and night for it. So that to say a thing happened after three days and three nights, was with them the very same, as to say, it happened after three days, or on the third day.
We also need to keep in mind that we're reading a translation of a text written primarily for Hebrews with some phrases translated literally. These literal translations don't carry the full meaning that the same phrase would have for the audience it was meant for.
For example, if the phrase "I'll be there in a minute" were translated in another language, the reader might believe I meant 60 seconds exactly and would be surprised to learn that I could mean 5 minutes or so. But someone familiar with popular English expressions would understand I meant anywhere from 1 minute to 10 minutes.
You also asked:
Its so confusing..... How will the people say if it was meant exactly 3 days and 3 nights.
I agree about the confusion. I think this is a very good question. Not being a Bible scholar, I don't really know the answer to that, but as a guess I'd say that there are two possibilities:
1. There would have to be more information provided to indicate the speaker meant exactly three 12 hour days and three 12 hour nights. The context would be helpful. In Matthew's Gospel we have indications that Jesus DID NOT mean a literal 72 hour period and that Matthew did not take it to be. The main evidence for this is that the Resurrection did not occur after a 72 hour period, but on "the third day."
2. The speaker might add the word "exactly" (or some other qualifier) to the phrase three days and three nights.
In the "I'll be there in a minute" example in English, to indicate I meant exactly one minute I would probably say "in 60 seconds," or add the words "exactly, no more and no less" to the phrase.
I hope I'm making sense and not complicating things unnecessarily. Perhaps Rev Eric could follow up and clear things up better.
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