Degrees of Sin

[Ayodhya Nath Bhat]

Degrees of Sin

The Catechism indoctrinates Catholics with the notion that there are varying degrees of sin:

"Sins are rightly evaluated according to their gravity." Pg. 454, #1854

First are venial sins:

"One commits venial sin when, in a less serious matter, he does not observe the standard prescribed by the moral law, or when he disobeys the moral law in a grave manner, but without full knowledge or without complete consent." Pg. 456, #1862

Then there are mortal sins:

"Mortal sin... results in the loss of charity and the privation of sanctifying grace, that is, of the state of grace. If it is not redeemed by repentance and God's forgiveness, it causes exclusion from Christ' s kingdom and the eternal death of hell..." Pg. 456, #1861 (See also Pg. 264, #1014, Pg. 269, #1033, Pg. 270, #1035 and Pg. 270, #1037.)  

With the threat of "the eternal death of hell" hanging over your head, several important questions need answers, like:

What specifically constitutes a mortal sin?
How much repentance does it take to get one forgiven?
How do I know when one is forgiven?
Why is the Bible silent on the subject?
Tragically, the Catechism does not provide answers to any of these questions.

What does the Bible teach?

When we turn to God's Holy Word, we get a totally different picture:

"Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." 1 John 3:4  

Since we have all broken a command of God, the Bible declares that we are all sinners.

"For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God." Romans 3:23

Because of sin we all deserve to die and suffer the punishment of hell:

"The wages of sin is death..." Romans 6:23  

God's Word makes no distinction as to the gravity of certain sins. It simply states that the wages of sin is death.

But God in His great grace and love, sent His Son, Jesus Christ, to die on the cross to pay the price for all sin once and for all:

"But this man (Jesus), after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;" Hebrews 10:12

True salvation is only available through Jesus Christ because only He could shed sinless blood to pay the penalty for all sin:

"In whom we have redemption through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins:" Colossians 1:14
"For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins." Matthew 26:28
 

While God does expect His children to confess their sins to Him, once sins are confessed and forgiven, God makes a wonderful promise:

"And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more." Hebrews 10:17

Jesus is demoted again

Here again, honor is stolen from Jesus Christ. Because of the Lord's selfless act of love on the cross, He alone deserves credit for remitting the sins of all mankind.

Catholicism, though, demotes the Lord and robs Him of the honor and glory that He alone deserves, by declaring that lowly sinners can help pay for varying degrees of sins through their good works.

Conclusion

Again you must choose. Will you remain in bondage to Catholicism by believing that some sins are worse than others and that continual good works are needed to pay for these various degrees of sin?

Or will you trust God's Word, that Jesus died to pay the price for all sin, once and for all?

"For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;" 1 Corinthians 15:3

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[Seeker]

Wish I had more time to reply.  I have a few quick points to make.

If anyone sees his brother sinning, if the sin is not deadly, he should pray to God and he will give him life. This is only for those whose sin is not deadly. There is such a thing as deadly sin, about which I do not say that you should pray. All wrongdoing is sin, but there is sin that is not deadly.  1 John 5:16-17

Scripture talks about mortal sin most of the time because that is what kills us spiritually.  Romans 6:23 speaks of mortal, or deadly sin.  But John makes a distinction between sin that is deadly and sin that is not. How else would you explain 1 John 5:16-17?

With the threat of "the eternal death of hell" hanging over your head, several important questions need answers,

Hell is a biblical doctrine.  You imply that the Catholic Church made it up to keep believers in some kind of bondage.   Is this comment based on a "once saved always saved" doctrine?

Will you remain in bondage to Catholicism by believing that some sins are worse than others and that continual good works are needed to pay for these various degrees of sin?

I fail to see how the belief that some sins are more grave than others keeps you under some kind of bondage.  Finally, the Bible calls all believers to repentance and good works in faith.  If you are implying that Catholics believe we can sin and perform good works without repenting to somehow "earn" forgiveness or "balance out" our sin, then you are grossly mistaken.  This is not what Catholicism teaches.  Repentance is required for reconciliation with God.  I know I've left a lot of questions unanswered.  If someone else doesn't get to them, I'll try to respond another time.

[Rev. Eric]

Excellent post, Seeker.  I am glad that you pointed out 1John 5:15-16.  But obviously Ayodhya already knew about it but chose not to acknowledge it.  I say this because he quoted a part of #1854 of the Catechism, as follows:

"Sins are rightly evaluated according to their gravity." Pg. 454, #1854

But then he left out the line that came right after that: "The distinction between mortal and venial sin, already evident in Scripture, became part of the tradition of the Church."  The CCC clearly footnoted that statement with 1John 5:16-17.  Ayodhya has done this sort of thing in the past.  He will quote the CCC but ignore any footnoted Scripture passages that are used to defend Catholic positions.  As you may recall, he did this exact same thing in the topic on "Celibacy" and I pointed it out.

Now, to Ayodhya, here are the answers to some of your questions:

What specifically constitutes a mortal sin?

See CCC# 1857-1861 (it's spelled out in detail).

How much repentance does it take to get one forgiven?

As a general rule, repentence offered with a firm purpose of amendment is what is required.  This can be done in a single act of repentence.

How do I know when one is forgiven?

In terms of the Sacrament of Reconciliation, if a Catholic makes a good confession (backed with a firm purpose of amendment) and is granted absolution, he is forgiven when he fulfills the act of penance his confessor gives him.

Why is the Bible silent on the subject?

What subject?  Mortal and venial sin"?  But, as Seeker pointed out, the bible is not silent on that.  And, as I pointed out, you knew it.

Tragically, the Catechism does not provide answers to any of these questions.

Every answer I just gave is in the Catechism.

While God does expect His children to confess their sins to Him, once sins are confessed and forgiven, God makes a wonderful promise:

"And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more." Hebrews 10:17

And exactly where do Catholics say otherwise?

Catholicism, though, demotes the Lord and robs Him of the honor and glory that He alone deserves, by declaring that lowly sinners can help pay for varying degrees of sins through their good works.

A person does not "pay" for sins, but he must participate in this salvation by living a life of faith.  That includes good works.  

Melody wrote about this at length two weeks ago in the discussion on sacraments.  It was a very good post and she backed it up with Scripture, and yet you have not responded to it.

But apparently, you still deny the importance of good works.  Therefore I challenge you to give me an interpretation of the following passage:
"Above all hold unfailing your love for one another, since love covers a mulitude of sins.  Practice hospitality ungrudgingly to one another."  (1Pet 4:8-9)  If good works don't mean anything in terms of salvation, then how does my love and hospitality for another "cover a mulitude of sins"?

And for that matter, why did the "goats" go to hell in the Parable of the Sheep and the Goats?  (Mt 25:31-42)  The only reason that Matthew states is because the goats did not engage in acts of charity.

And for that matter, explain to me why the the bible says:
"Be doers of the word, and not hearers only, deceiving yourselves" (James 1:22), and
"Religion that is pure and undefiled before God and the Father is this: to visit orphans and widows in their affliction, and to keep oneself unstained from the world" (James 1:27), and
"You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone."  (James 2:24), and
"Faith without works is dead"  (James 2:26), and
"For He will render to every man according to his works...For it is not the hearers of the law who are righteous before God, but the doers of the law who will be justified."  (Romans 2:6,13)

God bless,
-Rev. Eric

[DavidFilmer]

If Ayodhya plans to cut-and-paste the works of others, the least he could do is attribute it. Ayodhya plagerized this content from the book "Understanding Roman Catholicism," copyright 1995 by Rick Jones, which is posted (with permission and attrition) on Jack Chick's website (Jack Chick is a professional anti-Catholic):

http://www.chick.com/reading/books/160/160_11.asp

[Ayodhya Nath Bhat]

Thanks for your response

Love

Ayodhya